PPC/OMM Block 8 Practice Exam

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• The thoracic vertebral level that is even with the angle of the scapula is which?
• If L5 is rotated right, what direction would the sacrum be rotated?
• Which ganglion sympathetic innervates the midgut?
• Describe how your hands would feel in vault hold if a patient has SBS compression.
• Which movements are produced by the peroneus longus and brevis at the ankle?
• The BITE rule states that you treat the bottom rib when it is inhaled and the top rib when it is exhaled. Which statement correctly reflects this rule?
• Which muscles are innervated by the S1 nerve root and contribute to ankle eversion and plantar flexion?
• During Hibb's test, a positive result is most closely indicated by pain at which location during hip rotation?
• Which symptom is more indicative of radiculopathy rather than pure musculoskeletal back pain?
• What does Roo's test evaluate?
• What nerve sympathetically innates the foregut?
• Which rotator cuff muscle is primarily responsible for external rotation of the arm?
• Which test is commonly used to detect meniscal tears by flexing and rotating the knee?
• In short leg syndrome with the left leg shorter, how does the lumbar spine side bend?
• Anterior Chapman point of the myocardium is located between which ribs at the sternocostal junction?
• Anterior Chapman point of the bronchus is at which rib junction?
• The posterior Chapman point for the upper lung is located between spinous process and transverse process of which vertebral levels?
• Which spinal levels provide sympathetic output to the hindgut?
• What is a viscerosomatic reflex?
• The posterior Chapman point for the gallbladder is located at which vertebral levels and side?
• Where is the anterior Chapman point for the proximal 2/5ths of the transverse colon located?
• A seated flexion test screens for dysfunction in which region?
• In craniosacral terminology, the anatomic barrier is described as which of the following?
• The posterior chapman point for the bladder is located at the transverse processes of which vertebra?
• In Fryette's First Principle, which motion occurs first?
• What is the relationship between side bending motion of L5 and the sacrum?
• If the L4 nerve root is damaged, which sensation is most likely lost?
• Which statement describes the heart rate effect of parasympathetic activation?
• The tibia fibula squeeze test screens for which structure?
• Which of the following is always direct?
• The Hawkins test evaluates which shoulder condition?
• Reproductive organs except the ovaries/testes are innervated parasympathetically by which nerve?
• The posterior Chapman point for the heart is located between which vertebral levels?
• In a patient with back pain and a normal physical exam with no red flags, which treatment is typically recommended?
• What is the primary motion of the thoracic spine?
• In the FADIR test, the sequence is described as which of the following?
• Speed's test is used to assess which conditions?
• Which CMP finding could suggest malignancy in back pain evaluation?
• The iliolumbar ligaments contribute primarily to stability at which spinal junction?
• If multiple Tenderpoints are present, which is treated first?
• The anterior Chapman point for the sinuses is located where?
• Which nerve innervates the upper ureters parasympathetically?
• Standing flexion test is used to screen for innominate dysfunction.
• In the Roo's test, which action does the patient perform?
• Which nerve travels through the foramen lacerum?
• What Q angle is associated with patellofemoral pain syndrome?
• What is the most important step of counterstrain?
• Which cranial nerves travel through the internal acoustic meatus?
• The lesser splanchnic nerve provides sympathetic input to which region?
• Which set of spinal levels provide sympathetic innervation to thoracic visceral derivatives up to the ligament of Treitz?
• The posterior Chapman point for the middle ear is located at which structure?
• In a hip flexed position, what is the action of the piriformis?
• If ribs 5 through 8 are inhaled, which rib should the treatment be directed at?
• Which bone is NOT part of the transverse arch along with navicular, cuneiform, and cuboid?
• Myofascial release can be classified as which of the following?
• The greater petrosal nerve is a branch of which cranial nerve?
• The anterior Chapman point for the pancreas is located at which costochondral joint?
• What is the normal range of motion for spinal flexion?
• The posterior Chapman point for the pancreas is located on which side?
• The patella tilt test evaluates which condition?
• Normal ROM for spinal side bending?
• The arm going up and over portion of the Apley scratch test evaluates which movements?
• The posterior Chapman point of the lower lung is located between spinous process and transverse process of which vertebral levels?
• Which structure shows no parasympathetic effect when stimulated?
• Cervix parasympathetic effect is
• In a lateral cranial strain pattern, how do the sphenoid and occiput rotate on the involved axes?
• For GI organs located after the splenic flexure, sympathetic fibers originate from which levels?
• An anterior Chapman point located on the distal left iliotibial band corresponds to which region of the colon?
• Where does the middle scalene attach?
• Which statement is true regarding FPR?
• The posterior Chapman point for the ileum corresponds to which spinal levels?
• In levoscoliosis, on which side is the curve convex?
• Which muscle is part of the rotator cuff (SITS)?
• During the elbow valgus stress test, the stress is applied in which direction?
• Which organ has its anterior Chapman point at the LEFT 7th costochondral joint?
• In Morton's neuroma test, which metatarsal heads are squeezed?
• The Apley compression and distraction test is used to assess what?
• Which dermatomes cover the anterior lower extremities, with L1-L3 covering most of the thigh?
• Fryette's Third Principle predicts that movement in one plane will ...
• Anterior rib tenderpoints are usually associated with which type of rib?
• The diaphragmatic crura attach to which spinal levels?
• In a humeral dislocation, which direction does the humeral head usually dislocate?
• Which nerve root is most closely associated with ankle eversion and plantar flexion?
• The acromioclavicular compression test evaluates the integrity of which joint?
• If a lesion affected the hindgut sympathetic supply, which spinal levels would be most relevant?
• Which reflex is responsible for chapman points?
• Lachman's test is performed with the knee flexed at approximately how many degrees, with stabilization of the femur and forward draw of the tibia?
• If a back pain is due to a vascular problem, which of the following could be the cause?
• C3F SaRa is categorized as which type of tenderpoint?
• During the Yergason test, reproduction of pain suggests which pathology?
• Which of the following best describes C3F SaRa?
• Which description best characterizes a Chapman point?
• Which nerve innervates the hindgut sympathetically?
• The posterior Chapman point for the stomach's acid-secreting region is located at which vertebral levels and side?
• The posterior Chapman point for the pharynx lies between the spinous process and transverse processes of which vertebra?
• Patella tracking is primarily used to evaluate which of the following?
• If you can palpate the very bottom of the patient's rib cage on their back, what spinal level are you in line with?
• Parasympathetic innervation of the proximal half of the large intestine is provided by which nerve?
• Which ribs are atypical?
• Which statement about back pain management is true?
• Which thoracic dermatome corresponds to the umbilicus?
• For muscle energy on ribs 3–5, which muscle is targeted?
• Which DTR is associated with the L5 nerve root?
• Which describes the effect of parasympathetic activation on the lens for focusing?
• The arm going behind the back and up portion of the Apley scratch test evaluates which movements?
• Which statement describes the functional difference between anterior and posterior Chapman points?
• The posterior chapman point for the ovaries lies between the spinous process and the transverse process of which levels?
• What describes the body’s response to Chapman point treatment?
• Which reflexes are important to test when evaluating back pain for neural signs?
• Sympathetic innervation of GI organs after the splenic flexure originates from which spinal levels?
• Relative to the spinous process of T11, where is the transverse process half a segment up?
• The drop arm test is most closely associated with tears of which rotator cuff muscle?
• When applying muscle energy to rib 2, which muscle is targeted?
• Which planes of motion are involved in a side bending rotation cranial strain pattern?
• The carpal compression test evaluates which condition?
• Spinal levels innervating the uterus, cervix, and lower extremities?
• The posterior Chapman point for the middle ear is located at which of the following?
• Which muscle is the major extensor of the hip?
• Hindgut is innervated by which spinal levels?
• If a clicking is reproduced during a shoulder examination, which structure is likely damaged?
• If a patient has a posterior fibular head, which nerve becomes irritated?
• The Thompson test evaluates which of the following?
• Anterior Chapman point for the gallbladder is located at which joint?
• Which statement about the thoracic spine's Fryette's principles is accurate?
• The anterior Chapman point for the ovaries is located at which anatomical landmark?
• Relative to the spinous process of T5, where is the transverse process half a segment up?
• Which knee structures are damaged in the 'terrible triad'?
• Which nerve exits the stylomastoid foramen?
• The foramen ovale transmits which trigeminal division?
• Elevated protein on CMP could indicate which condition?
• What would be the point of drawing a CBC for a patient with back pain?
• What is the function of the posterior longitudinal ligament of the spine?
• The posterior Chapman point for the jejunum is located at which vertebral levels?
• Which of the seven steps in Spencer's shoulder extension sequence is circumduction with compression?
• Goal of counterstrain?
• For the tibiofibular squeeze test, the ankle is dorsiflexed to how many degrees before squeezing?
• Which organ has an anterior Chapman point located between ribs 2-3 at the sternocostal junction?
• Spinal levels innervating the lower ureters?
• What ligament is most commonly sprained in the ankle?
• The posterior chapman point for the adrenal glands lies between the spinous and transverse processes of which vertebral levels?
• In SBS torsion, which planes and axis are involved?
• In Fryette's Second Principle, which motion occurs first?
• The posterior chapman point for the adrenal glands lies between the spinous and transverse processes of which vertebral levels?
• What is the function of the anterior longitudinal ligament of the spine?
• Where is the anterior Chapman point for the cecum located?
• Which condition is assessed by the external rotation resistance test?
• Which ligament is described as thick and strong in the lumbar spine?
• The posterior Chapman point for the liver is located on which side?
• In short leg syndrome with the left leg shorter, which side of the innominate rotates anteriorly?
• The anterior Chapman point for the myocardium is located at which location at the sternocostal junction?
• In a side-bending pattern, which statement about the rotation of the sphenoid and occiput is correct?
• Which muscles comprise the hamstring group?
• In left short leg syndrome, which side of the pelvis is rotated posteriorly?
• If you translate a segment to the left, what side do they have side bending?
• The OA joint has mechanics most similar to which Fryette principle?
• The posterior Chapman point for the tonsils is located between which vertebral structures?
• Where does the posterior scalene attach?
• The trigeminal division that travels through the foramen rotundum is which?
• Which of the following would be a red flag requiring urgent evaluation when evaluating back pain?
• Which dermatomes cover the posterior lower extremities?
• The posterior chapman point for the testes lies between the spinous process and the transverse process of which levels?
• What is the function of the rotatores and multifidus muscles?
• The vertical cranial strain example 'superior shear' describes which displacement?
• Which statement best characterizes the relationship between viscerosomatic and somatovisceral reflexes?
• In a cranial vertical strain pattern, how do the sphenoid and occiput rotate on their axes?
• In back pain assessment, which age-related red flag indicates possible serious pathology in adults?
• Braggard's test helps determine whether straight leg raise pain is due to back pathology or hamstring tightness. The positive finding is
• The McMurray test is performed to assess the integrity of which structure?
• The belly press test is used to assess tear of which muscle?
• Fryette's Second Principle applies to which regions?
• The shoulder relocation test evaluates which condition?
• What is the difference in pain radiation between a trigger point and a tender point when pressed?
• Which organ has a posterior Chapman point at T7/8 on the LEFT?
• Where does the L4 nerve root exit the vertebral column?
• Anterior Chapman point of the upper lung is at which rib junction?
• The posterior Chapman point of the bronchus is located between spinous process and transverse process of which thoracic vertebra?
• Which statement is NOT a feature of Chapman points?
• What is the effect of unilateral contraction of the quadratus lumborum?
• If a patient is suspected to have a stress fracture, which imaging modality is best to detect it?
• Which nerve parasympathetically innervates the testes/ovaries?
• Posterior counterstrain points are usually treated with which position?
• In McMurray testing, which sequence stresses the meniscus to elicit a clunk or pain?
• Which organ is part of the foregut?
• When the foot is pronated, in which direction does the fibular head move?
• The hindgut is innervated by the inferior mesenteric ganglion.
• In vault hold for a right side-bending rotation cranial strain pattern, which describes the hand positions?
• The thoracic vertebral level that is even with the spine of the scapula is which?
• In patella tracking testing, when is a test considered positive?
• What is a neurolymphatic reflex?
• If you palpate the PSISs, what spinal level are you in line with?
• Parasympathetic activation on the uterus Fundus causes
• In an L4-5 disc herniation, which nerve root is most likely compressed?
• Which statement correctly identifies the two main components of the intervertebral disc?
• Which organ’s anterior Chapman point is located at the distal right IT band?
• In spinal stenosis, which statement is NOT a feature?
• Which of the following is NOT a component of Spencer's shoulder extension sequence?
• C2-C7 has which mechanics?
• Which muscle would be weak in patellofemoral pain syndrome?
• Which action is produced by the piriformis when the hip is extended?
• An anterior Chapman point for the esophagus is located at which ribs and joint?
• Which condition is commonly addressed with Spencer's shoulder technique?
• Bracing is indicated for back pain in which scenario?
• The belly press test is a modified version of which test?
• During patella tracking evaluation, the patient is in which position?
• The Neer test is used to assess which condition?
• Which nerves pass through the internal acoustic meatus?
• Which ligament prevents excess ankle pronation?
• What does the anterior apprehension test evaluate?
• For muscle energy on ribs 6–9, which muscle is targeted?
• Ely's test is used to assess which condition?
• Which treatment will normalize hypersympathetic tone?
• What is the treatment position for piriformis counterstrain?
• The straight leg raise test screens for which condition?
• The umbilicus dermatome corresponds to which level?
• The lateral cranial strain pattern is named based on the position of which structure?
• Parasympathetic effect on the smooth muscle sphincters of GI and bladder is to
• In an L4-5 disc herniation, which nerve root is affected?
• The anterior Chapman point for the jejunum is located at which ribs near which costochondral junction?
• The lift-off test primarily assesses tear of which muscle?
• Which of the following lists contains all the hamstring muscles?
• In the posterior lower extremities, which dermatomes correspond to the medial and lateral portions, respectively?
• During the elbow varus stress test, the stress is applied in which direction?
• Relative to the spinous process of T9, where is the transverse process located?
• Fryette's First Principle applies to which regions of the spine?
• Which statement accurately reflects Fryette's Third Principle?
• Intervertebral discs consist of which two main parts?
• Which ligament is commonly strained in traumatic injuries of the back?
• In short leg syndrome with the left leg shorter, how does the lumbar spine rotate?
• Which outcome is listed as an indication for venous sinus drainage technique?
• The posterior Chapman point for the gallbladder is located at which vertebral levels and side?
• Which muscle is innervated by the L5 nerve root?
• Which statement correctly differentiates spondylolysis from spondylolisthesis?
• According to the material, posterior counterstrain points are treated with a position that primarily involves which motion?
• Where does the iliopsoas muscle insert?
• Which spinal levels are associated with hindgut innervation?
• The posterior Chapman point of the upper lung is located between spinous process and transverse process of which vertebral levels?
• Which cranial nerves travel through the superior orbital fissure?
• Which statement correctly describes Fryette's Second Principle?
• The insertion of the latissimus dorsi muscle is into which structure?
• In vault hold for a right lateral cranial strain pattern, which describes finger tilts?
• Which pulses should be checked in a patient with low back pain to assess possible vascular involvement?
• Which of the following is a component of the venous sinus drainage technique that targets bilateral structures?
• Which lab markers are commonly ordered in the evaluation of back pain with possible inflammatory or infectious etiologies?
• Which statement describes a herniated disc (not bulging)?
• The ligament that connects the laminae of adjacent lumbar vertebrae is which?
• The Yergason test screens for which shoulder injury?
• Which finding constitutes a positive Ely's test?
• Painful chapman points are indicative of what?
• Relative to the spinous process of T2, where is the transverse process?
• Which statement best describes the sympathetic innervation range for GI organs proximal to the ligament of Treitz?
• For which vertebral feature is the transverse process located half a segment up relative to the spinous process?
• Which vertebral levels sympathetically innervate the midgut?
• Which statement about a spinal extension ROM of 28 degrees is true?
• What is the location difference between a trigger point and a tender point?
• Appendix, adrenals, upper ureters, testes, and ovaries are innervated by which spinal levels?
• Which axes are involved in a cranial vertical strain pattern?
• What does the elbow varus test evaluate for the integrity of the elbow?
• Which symptom is a classic sign of cauda equina syndrome requiring emergent evaluation?
• What condition weakens the alar ligament?
• The anterior Chapman point for the tonsils is located between which ribs?
• Which sign would you expect with radial nerve injury such as wrist weakness?
• Which finding is a red flag suggesting possible cauda equina syndrome?
• The iliolumbar ligaments attach to the transverse processes of which vertebrae?
• Which nerve supplies parasympathetic innervation to reproductive organs excluding ovaries/testes?
• In vault hold for a superior vertical cranial strain pattern, which hand position is correct?
• Describe the Hawkins test maneuver.
• What best distinguishes the Lachman test from the standard anterior drawer test?
• Which ligaments stabilize the lateral ankle?
• Which signs are typical of musculoskeletal back pain and not nerve-related?
• In the terrible triad, which knee structure is also injured along with the ACL and MCL?
• Which cranial nerve travels through the hypoglossal canal?
• Which statement about the posterior scalene is true?
• During sacral counternutation, what happens to the sacral base?
• The posterior Chapman point for the spleen is located at which vertebral levels and side?
• The middle ear anterior Chapman point is located at the superior aspect of the clavicle near which junction?
• Which statement describes the posterior longitudinal ligament?
• Which symptom indicates a red flag such as infection or malignancy in back pain?
• The anterior Chapman point for the tonsils is located between which ribs adjacent to the sternum?
• Which option best describes a reflex used in MET?
• The anterior Chapman point for the splenic flexure and descending colon is located on which portion of the iliotibial band?
• Which statement correctly matches a nerve root to its associated muscle action?
• Phalen's test screens for which condition?
• Which organ is NOT part of the foregut?
• The posterior cruciate ligament prevents which knee motion?
• During forearm pronation, the radial head glides in which direction?
• Which vertebral levels sympathetically innervate the esophagus and upper extremities?
• Spondylolysis is best described as?
• Which vertebral levels sympathetically innervate the respiratory system?
• Which nerve root is primarily responsible for sensation on the dorsum of the foot and the lateral leg?
• Which structure travels through the foramen spinosum as a meningeal branch of the mandibular division (V3)?
• Which statement best describes bulging versus herniated discs?
• For a patient with back pain and no red flags, which imaging modality is generally used first?
• What is the normal maximum ROM value used for spinal extension?
• The posterior chapman point for the adrenal glands lies between the spinous and transverse processes of which levels?
• A positive sulcus sign is defined by a depression of which finding?
• A standing flexion test screens for dysfunction in which region?
• The posterior chapman point for the kidney is located between the spinous and transverse processes of which vertebral levels?
• Which rotator cuff muscle lies on the anterior surface of the scapula and inserts on the lesser tubercle of the humerus?
• Which CMP finding could indicate bone involvement such as metastasis or Paget's disease?
• Spondylolisthesis is pars interarticularis fracture WITH anterior displacement.
• The posterior apprehension test evaluates which instability?
• Parasympathetic activation causes which change in the pupil?
• Which nerve exits between L4 and L5?
• The posterior Chapman point for the spleen is located on which side?
• Which condition is considered an emergent medical situation requiring urgent evaluation?
• FPR is a direct or indirect technique?
• The drop arm test is positive if which of the following occurs?
• Parasympathetic effect on the smooth muscle of the gastrointestinal tract and bladder wall is
• Rib raising is associated with which autonomic nervous system?
• The metatarsal squeeze test screens for which condition?
• Which tactile quality best describes Chapman points?
• Which statement best matches the motions of the OA and AA joints?
• Sympathetic innervation to the kidneys arises from which spinal levels?
• Which muscle is innervated by the L4 nerve root and contributes to ankle inversion?
• The left lymphatic duct drains into the junction of which vessels?
• The anterior Chapman point for the pharynx is located 3-4 cm medial to the junction of which two structures?
• Which nerve sympathetically innervates the midgut?
• The interspinous and supraspinous ligaments connect which structures and limit what motion?
• In manual muscle testing, what does a score of 3/5 indicate?
• Elevated alkaline phosphatase on CMP could indicate which conditions?
• Which statement best describes the difference between a sprain and a strain?
• What is the center portion of the intervertebral disc called?
• What is the primary motion of the OA joint?
• In left short leg syndrome, which side is the sacral base lower?
• Which muscles are evaluated by Finkelstein's test?
• What is a desiccated disc?
• What is the primary motion of the thoracic spine?
• Which ligament injury is assessed with the Milking maneuver?
• The anterior drawer test of the knee primarily assesses integrity of which ligament?
• If a patient’s scapula wings out, which muscle has lost its innervation?
• The intertransverse ligament connects which structures and limits which movement?
• Which symptoms indicate a lumbar disc herniation?
• The Adson test assesses thoracic outlet syndrome due to compression of which artery?
• What is the primary motion of the AA joint?
• Which opening does CN VII exit after traveling through the facial canal?
• Which cranial nerves travel through the cavernous sinus?
• The anterior Chapman point for the larynx is located 5-7 cm lateral to the sternocostal junction of which rib?
• The sympathetic supply to foregut structures up to the ligament of Treitz is best described by which spinal range?
• In dextroscoliosis, on which side is the curve convex?
• The splenic flexure marks a transition in GI innervation; the sympathetic levels for tissues after this point are?
• Which spinal levels innervate both the uterus and lower extremities?
• What is the goal of HVLA?
• Which organ’s anterior Chapman point is located at the middle portion of the right IT band?
• Which of the following ranges is associated with sympathetic innervation of GI organs proximal to the ligament of Treitz?
• Which statement aligns with L5 side bending relative to the sacrum axis?
• Anterior Chapman point for the stomach associated with acid production is located at which site?
• Which ligaments connect the spinous processes and limit flexion?
• Which organ is part of the midgut?
• Where is the anterior Chapman point for the ascending colon and hepatic flexure located?
• The dura mater has firm attachments to all of the following except which vertebral level?
• Lachman’s test evaluates the integrity of which structure?
• A positive Babinski reflex in an older child or adult indicates what?
• Which statement best describes the Neer test maneuver?
• If you apply muscle energy on rib 12, which muscle are you targeting?
• The Apley scratch test assesses which movement range?
• The bounce test is used to assess which structure, with a positive result indicating pain?
• The posterior Chapman point for the rectum is located where?
• Which of the following is a step in Spencer's shoulder technique?
• Hibb's test is used to evaluate pathology of which joint?
• Which component of the venous sinus drainage technique is a bilateral-structure component?
• Which of the following is NOT a component of the lateral ligament complex of the ankle?
• The right lymphatic duct drains into which vessel?
• In deep tendon reflex grading, what does a score of 4/4 signify?
• The pelvic splanchnic nerves carry parasympathetic fibers to which regions?
• The posterior chapman point for the testes is located between the spinous process and the transverse process of which vertebral levels?
• Distal half of the colon is innervated by which nerve?
• The posterior Chapman point for the pharynx lies between the spinous process and transverse processes of which vertebra?
• When using muscle energy on rib 1, which muscles are targeted?
• Which thoracic vertebral level is even with the sternal notch?
• For back pain with no red flags, which initial approach is recommended?
• Which option lists the three muscles that form the hamstring group?
• Which rotator cuff muscle is located on the posterior aspect of the scapula?
• Which spinal levels sympathetically innervate the foregut?
• How does Muscle Energy work?
• If the radial nerve is injured, which muscle group is weakened?
• The posterior chapman point for the bladder is located at the transverse processes of which vertebra?
• The posterior Chapman point for the cecum through the sigmoid colon lies in which location?
• If ribs 7 through 10 are exhaled, which rib should the treatment be directed at?
• The normal maximum flexion degree of the spine is?
• Which nerve provides the meningeal branch that passes through the foramen spinosum?
• Which nerve is affected in meralgia paresthetica?
• Which vertebral levels sympathetically innervate the esophagus and upper extremities?
• Spondylosis is degenerative changes of the spine.
• Type I dysfunction typically involves how many spinal segments?
• Which ganglion sympathetically innervates the foregut?
• Which muscle is the major flexor of the hip?
• Which vertebral levels sympathetically innervate the heart?
• Does palpation of a Chapman point typically produce radiating pain?
• The posterior Chapman point for the liver is located at which vertebral levels and side?
• Which feature is considered a red flag for back pain suggesting serious pathology?
• Which of the following is a contraindication for CV4 cranial treatment?
• Which description accurately contrasts Type I and Type II dysfunctions?
• A positive Neer test is characterized by pain at which portion of the range of motion?
• Which hamstring muscle crosses both the hip and knee joints?
• Which patient group is contraindicated for CV4 cranial treatment?
• What is the effect of bilateral contraction of the quadratus lumborum?
• Appendix innervation levels?
• If you palpate the patient's iliac crests, what spinal level are you in line with?
• What is the primary function of the iliolumbar ligaments?
• An anterior Chapman point on the proximal left iliotibial band corresponds to which colon region?
• How is myofascial release classified?
• Which of the following is NOT listed as a relative contraindication for venous sinus drainage technique?
• ASIS compression test screens for innominate dysfunction.
• During the Adson maneuver, a positive result is indicated by which change in the radial pulse?
• Which of the following is the posterior Chapman point for the bronchus?
• When the cranium is in extension, what does the sacral base move?
• Which muscle is targeted by muscle energy on rib 9?
• Which nerve parasympathetically innervates the small intestine?
• Which test evaluates biceps tendon pathology and SLAP lesions?
• The head and neck are sympathetically innervated by which vertebral levels?
• Translating and side bending are opposite.
• The posterior Chapman point for the pancreas is located at which vertebral levels and side?
• Which reflex is primarily associated with Muscle Energy Technique's antagonistic muscle relaxation?
• The anterior chapman point for the adrenal glands is located at which position?
• Which cranial nerves pass through the jugular foramen?
• The anterior Chapman point for the gallbladder is located at which site?
• Which option describes parasympathetic effect on pupil and ciliary muscle leading to near vision?
• The anterior Chapman point for the appendix is located at the tip of which rib on the right side?
• CN X (vagus) provides parasympathetic innervation to which organs as described?
• The anterior drawer test of the ankle primarily evaluates which ligament?
• Which medical history factor is a red flag for back pain due to fracture risk or osteoporosis?
• The posterior Chapman point for the cecum through the sigmoid colon is described as being in which region?
• Which statement about CBC interpretation in back pain is true?
• Sympathetic innervation to GI organs proximal to the ligament of Treitz originates from which spinal levels?
• How long do you hold FPR?
• A posterior radial head injury is most commonly the result of which mechanism?
• The posterior Chapman point for the esophagus is located at which vertebral level?
• Which of the following is a muscle that is part of the erector spinae group?
• The facet capsular ligament encloses which joints and is easily irritated?
• The posterior Chapman point for the heart is located between the spinous process and the transverse process of which vertebral levels?
• CN X provides parasympathetic innervation to which regions of the gut?
• Which structure passes through the radial groove of the humerus?
• Glands are affected by parasympathetic activation in which way?
• The anterior Chapman point for the bladder is located in which region?
• An anterior Chapman point on the left iliotibial band near the splenic flexure corresponds to which colon region?
• Which pairing correctly identifies the primary motions of the OA and AA joints?
• The posterior Chapman point for the sinuses is located between the spinous process and transverse process of which vertebra?
• The lift-off test primarily evaluates tear of which muscle?
• Compartment syndrome most commonly affects which compartment of the leg?
• In the FADIR test, early pain indicates hip joint pathology; late pain indicates involvement of which structure?
• During sacral nutation, what happens to the sacral base?
• Which sign indicates hip abductor weakness during single-leg stance?
• Which cranial nerve travels through the stylomastoid foramen?
• Using muscle energy on rib 10-11 targets which muscle?
• Which nerve parasympathetically innervates the bladder?
• Which range best describes sympathetic supply to foregut and proximal midgut before the duodenojejunal flexure?
• What is facilitation?
• Which condition is commonly treated with Spencer's shoulder technique?
• The anterior Chapman point for the middle ear is located at the superior aspect of the clavicles just lateral to the junction with which rib?
• In the empty can test, the arm is positioned with abduction to 90 degrees and which rotation?
• Sacral rocking is associated with which autonomic nervous system?
• Which of the following is used to evaluate cervical spine radicular symptoms?
• What is a somatovisceral reflex?
• Which bones make up the transverse arch of the foot?
• Where do lumbar herniations most commonly occur?
• What should be performed before any lymphatic technique?
• What is a reasonable OMM approach for an acute back pain that is painful to palpate?
• The anterior Chapman point for the ileum is located near which ribs?
• The anterior Chapman point for the rectum is located in which region?
• What is the most common treatment for chapman points?
• Anterior Chapman point for the stomach associated with mobility is located at which site?
• Which of the following is NOT part of the erector spinae group?
• The vertical cranial strain pattern is named for which feature?
• The greater splanchnic nerve primarily innervates which region?
• In a patient with back pain following trauma, which imaging modality would be best to use first?
• Posterior cervical tenderpoints C2 and C4-C7E SaRa are treated with which posture?
• The anterior Chapman point for the liver involves which joints?
• The patella grind test is used to evaluate pathology of which patellar surface?
• Pelvic splanchnic nerves primarily carry parasympathetic fibers to which regions?
• Which nerve innervates the flexor carpi ulnaris?
• A cranial side-bending rotation diagnosis is named for which of the following?
• Anterior Chapman point of the lower lung is at which rib junction?
• Which organ is NOT part of the foregut?
• Parasympathetic effect on the smooth muscle of the GI tract and bladder wall is to
• Which term describes degenerative changes of the spine?
• Parasympathetic stimulation on the heart primarily slows which aspects?
• The posterior Chapman point for the stomach's mobility region is located at which vertebral levels and side?
• Which of the following is NOT listed as a bilateral-structure component of the venous sinus drainage technique?
• C7F StRa is an anterior cervical tenderpoint.
• For back pain with suspected soft tissue involvement, which imaging is most appropriate?
• The inferior mesenteric ganglion is the sympathetic ganglion that innervates the hindgut.
• Which organ’s anterior Chapman point is located at the proximal right IT band?
• Which is the parasympathetic effect on bronchiolar smooth muscle?
• Where is the posterior Chapman point for the larynx located?
• Which statement describes a bulging disc (not herniated)?
• Which structure does the empty can test primarily evaluate?
• If you apply muscle energy on rib 10-11, which muscle are you targeting?
• Which history factor raises concern for back pain due to cancer spread or infection?
• Spondylolysis is pars interarticularis fracture WITHOUT anterior displacement.
• Spinal levels innervating the bladder, penis, and prostate?
• Normal ROM for spinal rotation?
• The anterior Chapman point for the kidney is located how far from the umbilicus?
• Which ligaments enclose the facet joints and are easily irritated?
• Parasympathetic effect on the GI and bladder sphincters is
• The sigmoid area anterior Chapman point is located on which portion of the left iliotibial band?
• Which statement is true about desiccated discs?
• Which statement correctly describes the left lymphatic duct drainage?
• How is the patient positioned for the Spurlings test?
• Which thoracic dermatome corresponds to the nipple region?
• Parasympathetic effect on the skin is
• The subclavian artery runs between which two scalene muscles?
• Which statement best describes Fryette's First Principle (Type I) mechanics?
• Which test is used to assess posterior cruciate ligament integrity?
• The posterior Chapman point for the appendix is located at which vertebral feature?
• What is a chapman point?
• What does the sulcus sign evaluate?
• In vault hold for an inferior vertical cranial strain pattern, which hand position is correct?
• The anterior Chapman point for the duodenum is located at which ribs near which costochondral junction?
• If a patient had a right torsion cranial diagnosis, describe what your hands would be doing in vault hold.
• If a patient’s carrying angle is greater than 15 degrees, what is this called?
• The posterior Chapman point for the duodenum is located at which vertebral levels?
• Sympathetic fibers to foregut and proximal midgut regions arise primarily from which levels?
• Using muscle energy on rib 12 targets which muscle?
• Which organ is NOT part of the hindgut?
• Spondylolisthesis is pars interarticularis fracture and anterior displacement.
• Anterior Chapman point for the liver is located at which joints?
• The anterior Chapman point for the testes is located at which anatomical landmark?
• Which planes of motion are involved in a lateral cranial strain pattern?
• What is the parasympathetic effect on skeletal muscles?
• Sympathetic innervation to GI organs proximal to the ligament of Treitz is carried by which spinal levels?
• What is the normal range for spinal extension ROM?
• When the cranium is in flexion, what does the sacral base move?
• What is the relationship between rotation motion of L5 and the sacrum?
• If the L5 nerve root is damaged, what sensation is lost?
• A positive Trendelenburg test indicates weakness of which muscle group?
• Which statement about chapman points is true?
• Phalen's test screens for which condition?
• Which ganglion innervates the hindgut?
• Which test is used to evaluate discogenic back pain?
• The McMurray test is used to assess tears in which knee structure?
• If the sphenoid and occiput both rotate left in a lateral cranial strain, what happens to the basiphenoid?
• Which muscle is the major extensor of the knee?
• The anterior Chapman point for the kidney is located one inch superior and one inch lateral to the umbilicus. Which option matches this location?
• The talar tilt test assesses which ligament?
• Spinal levels innervating the kidneys?
• In back pain assessment, which medical history factor could indicate higher risk due to vascular or degenerative disease?
• The anterior drawer ankle test primarily assesses the integrity of which structure?
• Which medication history factor is a red flag for back pain?
• Hindgut sympathetic supply originates from which spinal levels?
• What words do patients usually use to describe radiculopathy from the back?
• In a hip extended/neutral position, what is the action of the piriformis?
• The Scrub/Scour test is used to evaluate which issues in the hip?
• What is the outer border of the intervertebral disc called?
• Which statement best describes Type II dysfunction?
• Where is the anterior lumbar L2 tenderpoint located?
• In an SBS torsion cranial diagnosis, the right vs left designation is determined by which of the following?
• Which statement describes the sagittal plane positions for Type I versus Type II dysfunctions?
• Which symptom should raise concern for referred pain origin when evaluating back pain?
• The anterior Chapman point for the spleen is located at which joint?
• Which planes of motion are involved in a compression cranial strain pattern?
• What is the typical treatment position for posterior cervical tenderpoints such as C2?
• The lumbar spine primarily allows which motion in the sagittal plane?
• Damage to the S1 nerve root would most likely cause loss of sensation in which region?
• Which region do C2-C6 and C8F SaRa tenderpoints belong to?
• What is the major motion of the lumbar spine?
• What are the signs and symptoms of spinal stenosis?
• An ASIS compression test screens for dysfunction in which region?
• Which nerve parasympathetically innervates the kidneys?
• The posterior chapman point for the ovaries is located between the spinous process and the transverse process of which vertebral levels?
• Where does the anterior scalene attach?
• Meralgia paresthetica involves compression of which nerve?
• What does the elbow valgus test evaluate for?
• The nipple dermatome corresponds to which thoracic level?
• The posterior Chapman point for the ileum is associated with which vertebral levels?
• Anterior Chapman point for the pancreas is located at which joint?
• C2-C6 and C8F SaRa are examples of anterior cervical tenderpoints.
• How long is counterstrain held?
• During Roo's test, which finding indicates arterial compression when positive?
• Which statement about the kidney's Chapman points is accurate?